0
Technically no. The collective bargaining agreement prohibits it. However a player may own shares of any publicly traded company which also owns a team (Note: not just any corporation, it must be publicly traded). If the player owned more than 50% of a publicly traded company, and that company owned more than 50% of a team then he would effectively own the team and it would not be in violation of the rules.
Wiki User
∙ 10y ago
Wiki User
∙ 14y agoIn theory he could, there would be nothing stopping him, as long as he is a registered player with the club.
Add your answer:
Earn +20 pts
Who is the owner of the Croatia football club?
It national team it does not have a owner. It will be run by the football assoc of croatia.
Who is the owner of the Arsenal Football Club?
Stan Kroenke is the owner of Arsenal Football Club. Stan Kroenke owns 66.83 percent of the shares.
What colour does Charlton Football Club play in?
The Charlton football club play in red jerseys.
What is the list of management structure for Chelsea football club starting with roman abramovich?
Owner of Chelsea football club
What is the purpose of the a football club?
to play football
How is the owner of arsenal football club?
Jagtaj singh-lovely
Who is the owner of fulham football club?
Mohammad Al Fayed.
Who is the richest football club owner?
chelseas, roman ibrahmavic
What club does Elvis ewruje play for?
Stockton football club
Who owns spartak moscow football club?
Leonid Fedun is the owner
Who was the first owner of Chelsea football club London?
Guus mears
Who is the most rich football club owner in the world?
Gareth Bale
