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It is possible that both entities -- the association and the mortgage holder -- have vested, monetary interests in a condominium unit.

There may be no 'priority' as to which entity forecloses first, but your state law may dictate which entity occupies the 'priority' position insofar as the distribution of funds are concerned when the property is sold.

A local, association-savvy attorney can answer the specifics of your question.

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Generally, a lender will make certain there are no outstanding condominium fees or assessments due before granting the mortgage. The banks require a certificate of no unpaid charges as part of any mortgage transaction. That is the main purpose of the title examination performed for any property that is the subject of a pending mortgage, i.e., to make certain there are no prior encumbrances. The lender wants to make certain it's lien is senior.

If a lien arises for unpaid condominium fees or assessments after a mortgage is granted, the lien is subject to the mortgage. If the condominium forecloses on a condominium lien for a unit that is subject to a prior mortgage, the condominium would acquire the unit subject to the mortgage.

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Q: Can condo foreclose over a lender?
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