Generally no, if the lender carries on their business properly. When you grant a mortgage you are granting the lender a security interest in your property. Anyone with an ownership interest in a property must sign the mortgage document.
The purpose underlying the execution of a mortgage by all the owners is that in the case of a default, the lender can take possession of the property and sell it. If two people own the property and only one signed the mortgage the lender has received only a half interest in the property. It cannot foreclose and take possession of the property because one of the owners did not transfer their interest to the lender. There are certain cases where people may become confused and that is when the property owners do not all sign the note.
If two people own the property they must both sign the mortgage. In certain cases only one will sign the note and thereby be solely responsible for paying the loan. The co-owner who didn't sign the note is not responsible for paying the debt. However, if there is a default, the lender can take possession of the property by foreclosure because the co-owner who didn't sign the note did sign the mortgage giving the lender full power of foreclosure.A responsible lender will insist that ALL owners sign the mortgage.
There are lenders who break the rules in order to sell the loan. Those are only interested in collecting the high fees and costs associated with the initial transaction. They aren't concerned with good title if the borrower defaults since the loans are sold soon after the transaction.
Generally, all the owners of the real estate must sign a mortgage so the bank can foreclose if there is a default.
"Second mortgage rates are for people who already have a first mortgage out and need the money for bills. Or, sometimes if there is an emergency and they don't have the money to cover it, they will take a second mortgage out."
First, the person who is the grantee on the deed owns the property. Period. Second, the person who signed the mortgage is obligated to pay the bank. If you signed a mortgage but didn't own the property the bank can come after you to pay if the property owner defaults on the mortgage. It will ruin your credit. Your answer: If you do not own the property and yet you signed the mortgage then you own nothing and you will be held responsible for paying the mortgage.
The second mortgage holder typically needs to approve the first mortgage refinance because they hold a subordinate position to the first mortgage. Refinancing the first mortgage could impact the second mortgage holder's position, so their consent is often required to make changes to the primary loan.
The biggest problem with second mortgage foreclosures is that you can lose your home even if you are still current on your first mortgage. The second mortgage, if defaulted on supersedes you first mortgage.
If the second mortgage is in default the second mortgagee can foreclose and take possession of the property subject to the first mortgage.
A homeowner take out a second mortgage if they are struggling to pay off their first mortgage. You can read more at www.bostonapartments.com/mortgage/second-mortgage/second-mortgage.html -
you then only have to pay the second
the main risk is that the first mortgage will not be paid. if the first mortgage is not paid, goes into default, and is foreclosed, the second mortgage will be determined in the foreclosure sale.
A second mortgage is not included in a Statue of Limitation law. Explain more about your first mortgage, and I will be able to tell you what will happen to your second mortgage.
The new bank in which the refinance mortgage loan has been taken from becomes the new owner of the first mortgage at the closing table. As for the second mortgage, the second mortgage holder remains the same. Before the first mortgage can close with the new lender, however, they must agree to re-subordinate the second mortgage along with their new one. It is not uncommon. I hope this information helps. Best of luck! Regards, Total Mortgage Services
You should review your first mortgage document for any requirement that the lender must be notified before you execute a second mortgage. If there is no clause to that effect then the answer is no.
First, it is unclear how you know the mortgage company received money toward the second mortgage from the foreclosure of the first mortgage. The lender can sue for the second mortgage. You should consult with an attorney who can seek documentation from the lender to support the amount they are suing you for.First, it is unclear how you know the mortgage company received money toward the second mortgage from the foreclosure of the first mortgage. The lender can sue for the second mortgage. You should consult with an attorney who can seek documentation from the lender to support the amount they are suing you for.First, it is unclear how you know the mortgage company received money toward the second mortgage from the foreclosure of the first mortgage. The lender can sue for the second mortgage. You should consult with an attorney who can seek documentation from the lender to support the amount they are suing you for.First, it is unclear how you know the mortgage company received money toward the second mortgage from the foreclosure of the first mortgage. The lender can sue for the second mortgage. You should consult with an attorney who can seek documentation from the lender to support the amount they are suing you for.