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Not under the "ex post facto" doctrine, if it is a statutory offense.

However, under the common-law criminal theory, any intentional harm to another person or municipality or the public morals could be considered a "crime", at least under state laws, even if not specifically defined in a statute.

There is also a good chance that there is a "lesser included offense" of a major crime, which was also a crime before enacting the definition of the particular major offense.

For example, "skyjacking" was not defined as a crime until the early 1970's, and the first skyjackers were charged with "air piracy" and kidnapping, among other things.

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16y ago
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14y ago

No, if the law was not instated before the act was committed you cannot be charged for said crime.

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Q: Can you be punished for a crime that was not a crime when you committed it?
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