When did Hitler take the guns away from the German people?

Answer 1

No.

In 1938 existing controls on gun ownership were revised. Jews were forbidden to own guns, but for others the existing law was in fact relaxed somewhat.

Note that in Germany gun ownership has never been seen as a civil liberties issue. In other words, it's not a major issue.

Answer 2

At the time of the Holocaust, Jews were pacifistic and had very few guns. Since then, the surviving Jews have become more willing to defend themselves through violence when necessary.

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The ban on Jews owning firearms came quite late - in 1938 (about five years after the Nazis came to power). The German Jews had a long tradition of being law-abiding, and armed resistance was far from their minds. The idea that if they had had the weapons they would have used force suggests a failure to understand the German Jews. It should be pointed out that none of the German minorities oppressed and persecuted by the Nazis resorted to armed resistance. In other words, it wasn't a specifically Jewish reluctance.

Answer 3

The answer is that he didn't do that. Gun control was a non-issue in Nazi Germany. In fact, the Nazi regime relaxed the laws on private gun ownership slightly in 1938. However, at the same time, Jews were forbidden to own firearms.

Answer 4

Short answer- yes and no. There's a little history behind this.

As you may be aware, the Treaty of Versailles had imposed harsh restrictions on the German military, including banning guns. However, Germany's new government, the Weimar Republic, didn't strongly enforce this, and people tended to quietly keep the weapons they had had before the war. The Treaty did make it extremely difficult to obtain new guns however.

During the 1920s, street clashes between Hitler's Nazi storm troopers and Communists became more violent and bloody. The Weimar government subsequently passed a gun registration law in 1928, which attempted (and failed) to curb the violence.

So when Hitler finally took power in 1933, there were already strict gun control laws in effect. Hitler initially did nothing to change this, nor did he strengthen the laws. In 1938, Hitler passed a law that pretty broadly loosened restrictions for "Germans", but also made for total disarmament of Jews. He later stated that he intended to totally disarm the Polish people- which makes sense if you're a bloodthirsty tyrant who wants to conquer your neighbors and wipe them out.

As you can see, "yes and no" is the right answer. He did ban guns for Jewish people- but long after he had consolidated power, and had already passed laws severely restricting Jews in all other ways too (to include stripping them of their German citizenship, and disallowing them from owning a business). For Germans, he not only didn't ban guns, but he made it easier to get them. He also clearly intended to disarm the people in countries he conquered, but the complications of World War II and occupation made this difficult.

One last note- on this here ol' internet, you'll often run across a quote by Hitler where he claims in a speech in 1935 to have successfully banned guns in Germany. The problem is that there is no evidence that he ever said it- the Nazis loved to write down everything Hitler said, so the fact that there is no firsthand evidence he said it is telling. Additionally, in light of the above facts, it makes no sense for Hitler to have said it in the first place- guns were already severely restricted long before 1935, nor was any new gun law passed at any time up to that point.

Answer 5

think about it...