If a driver hits a pedestrian and does not have adequate car insurance but does have adequate homeowner's insurance will it cover the accident?

In: Auto Insurance

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Answer

No. They are two totally different types of insurance.

First answer by anonymous. Last edit by anonymous. Question popularity: 45 [recommend question]

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What nis adequate? What is the meaning adequate? Is the item adequate for the task? If someone hits a pedestrian with his car by accident can he get into trouble? When is a pedestrian suppose to get insurance money to cover treatment when hit by a car? If client is a pedestrian and has household insurance which insurance pays the bills?