Is it plausible to say that the russo-turkish wars that ended in 1878 ultimately caused world war 1 by causing the downfall of the ottoman empire which led to the balkan wars which led to world war 1?

Even though one would have the possibility of stating such a declaration of opinion, one may wish to consider militeristic aspects of the Ottoman Empire, which was in existance and of stark contrast as stated above. From this, there would seem to be the issue of rather or not that this force could be considered as th Ottoman Empire in and of itself. Of course, there would also be the need to consider if the Ottoman Empire was recognized by the current World Powers which had occupied center stage. This would then lead one to believe that, since the Ottoman Empire entered the theater of the first world war in 1915, they were not recognized until a neccessity was screated so that to do so. There also seems to be the standing theory that the Ottoman Empire was nothing more then a group of renegade soldiers for hire, which may have an iota of truth attached to it. We can also take in the horrendous event of the Armenian Genocide, which had obviously required a great deal of organization, therefore having a need for a government of some sort. After we have taken in these events of vital concern, we may be able to gather a greater understanding of how, with the absence of "the downfall of the Ottoman Empire", the theory mentioned above is nothing more than an absurd notion of wandering minds.

First answer by MarcAntony1122. Last edit by David128. Contributor trust: 1 [recommend contributor]. Question popularity: 1 [recommend question]