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Well, yes and no. Sorry but there's a few "depends" in my answer. If I'm talking about shirts sold in the US and the UK, one set of data is in dollars and another set is sold in pounds and I've calculated means and standard deviations for both, I can convert the units, just like I do any conversions. The units for the mean and standard deviation are the same. So, if my mean shirt costs 15 pounds, and the standard deviation is 1.5 and there are 1.5 pound to every dollar, I can say the average cost of the shirt is 10 dollars with a standard deviation of 1 dollar. Of course the problem is, in many cases, the exchange rate is changing. If this is the case, I must, in the previous example, know how much each shirt cost in pounds and what the exchange rate was on the day it was purchased. The standard deviation can not be easily or correctly converted in this case. Now, in comparing the value of two currencies, the question is a bit more complicated, because we value a currency by its exchange to another currency. If I am comparing let say yen to dollars and yen to euro's, my units are different and a comparison is not proper. If an approximate dollars/ euro conversion factor can be used for the time series, then it is possible to have two comparable standard deviations on representing yen/dollars and a second one yen/dollars from convertd euros.

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Q: Is standard deviation of say two different currencies comparable?
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