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Answer:
Nowhere. It only talks (vaguely) about certain behaviors, not inherent natures.
In Leviticus 18:22 it says, "Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman; that is detestable."
In Leviticus 20:13, it also says, "If a man lies with a man as one lies with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable.."
Romans 1:27 says, "In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves due penalty for their perversion."
If I may put my own two cents in, it's worth noting that the attraction does not appear to be the sin here, it is the lust (which is a sin whether you are straight or homosexual) and the actions that follow. Sexual immorality in the bible is defined as any kind of sexual activity outside of heterosexual marriage. Why people choose to single out homosexuals as guilty is beyond me.
It's worth noting that Romans 1:27 only talks about men who have abandoned natural rations with women. It doesn't talk about men who never had any heterosexual feelings to abandon. Therefore, it doesn't apply to gay men...only to straight men who are going against their nature.
In Leviticus 18:22 it says, "Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman; that is detestable."
In Leviticus 20:13, it also says, "If a man lies with a man as one lies with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable.."
Romans 1:27 says, "In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves due penalty for their perversion."
If I may put my own two cents in, it's worth noting that the attraction does not appear to be the sin here, it is the lust (which is a sin whether you are straight or homosexual) and the actions that follow. Sexual immorality in the bible is defined as any kind of sexual activity outside of heterosexual marriage. Why people choose to single out homosexuals as guilty is beyond me.
It's worth noting that Romans 1:27 only talks about men who have abandoned natural rations with women. It doesn't talk about men who never had any heterosexual feelings to abandon. Therefore, it doesn't apply to gay men...only to straight men who are going against their nature.
Contributor:
Adamlance
Adamlance
First answer by Reveries.
Last edit by Reveries.
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