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100MHz

Wavelength(m) is inversely proportional to frequency (Hz)

Use the equation λ=v/f (Wavelength=velocity/frequency)

For the velocity just use the value 1 as since both waves will be through the same medium it doesn't matter

0.000001m = 1ms-1 / 10,000,000Hz

0.0000001m = 1ms-1 / 100,000,000Hz

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15y ago
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14y ago

No, frequencies around 10 MHz do not have a shorter wavelength than those around 100 MHz. The 100 MHz frequencies have shorter wavelengths. Higher frequencies have shorter wavelengths, while lower frequencies have longer ones.

Frequency and wavelength are inversely proportional. As one goes up, the other goes down. And in this case, as the 100 MHz signals are 10 times the frequency of the 10 MHz signals, the 100 MHz wavelengths will be 1/10th that of the 10 MHz signals. Said another way, the 10 MHz wavelengths will be 10 times that of the 100 MHz signals because those 10 MHz signals are 1/10th the frequency of the 100 MHz signals.

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14y ago

Instead of "shortest frequency", better say "lowest frequency". That would be the lowest number, that is, 10 MHz. Note that 1 GHz is the same as 1000 MHz.

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Q: Which is shortest frequency 10mhz 100mhz 1ghz 100ghz?
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