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In the United States, the rules on when you do or do not have to dial the area code vary from state to state.

In many parts of the country (including about 2/3 of the population), you must dial 1 before dialing a long distance (toll) call, even if it is in the same area code. However, you do not need to dial 1 before dialing a local call, even if it is in a different area code (either an adjacent area code or an overlay code in the same geographic area). This system is known as "toll alerting," and it is also used throughout Canada.

However, in other parts of the country, you must always dial 1 if you are calling a different area code, whether the call is local or toll. In some overlay areas, you must always dial 1 plus area code plus number for all calls, local or toll, same area code or different.

On most mobile phones (cell phones), you do not have to dial 1.

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Wiki User

9y ago
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Wiki User

11y ago

If you are dialing long distance, yes. However, when placing a local call in Texas, you must not dial 1.

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Anonymous

Lvl 1
3y ago

If you are in a different Area Code. Example I live in Palatine and my Husband is in Inverness. He can call me from there because we are in the same area. His Brother lives in Crystal Lake, IL. My husband can't call him because he is in a different area.

Would putting #1 before the phone number solve this problem?

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Q: When do you have to dial 1 before a phone number?
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