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Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb reimposed Jizya on non-Muslims in 1679. According to Mughal records, the Jizya was imposed on Hindus With the object of curbing the infidels, and of distinguishing the land of the faithful from an infidel land. Manucci says that Aurangzeb did this for two reasons: by this time his treasures had begun to shrink owing to expenditure on his campaigns; and secondly, to force the Hindus to become Muslims.

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Q: Which Mughal ruler reimposed 'Jizya' in 1679 upon the non-Muslims?
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