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Why shouldn't it be obeyed in iorganic chemistry, as stated in your question. It is quite general for reactions with intermediates and does not exclude inorganic substances.

However, the Hammond's principle is now generally considered obsolete. So, why bother anyhow?

(The principle was generally accepted until the 1970s when too many exceptions started to appear.)

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Q: Why Hammond's postulate is obeyed in organic chemistry and not in inorganic chemistry?
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