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change of income that is spent

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Q: In macroeconomics The mpc can be defined as that fraction of a?
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Is MPC less than APC in the short-run under keynesian macroeconomics?

APC is equal to MPC


The mpc can be defined as that fraction of a?

change in income that is spent. a change in real disposable income that is spent.


What is an mpc?

An MPC is a Midi Production Center.


Explain why MPC MPS1?

why mpc + mps = 1 ?


When was MPC Corporation created?

MPC Corporation was created in 1995.


When did MPC Corporation end?

MPC Corporation ended in 2008.


Which is best of 4 cec mpc bypc mbypc?

mpc


What is MPC Corporation's population?

MPC Corporation's population is 2,007.


The relationship between MPC and MPS is?

mps/mpc=1


What is multiplier and explain the working of it?

Multilplier is the ratio by which a given increase in investment brings about an increase in the national income. The extent of the increase in income ranges from 1 to infinity depending on the mariginal propensity to consume (MPC) and marginal propensity to save (MPS). Multiplier is symbolised by the aphabet "K" and its value is calculated as under:1 1K = ------------------------- = -----------------------1-MPC MPSIf MPC =1, K = infinity and if MPC = 0, K = 1 and in between there are numerous ratios, depending on the data in a question.Multiplier can also be defined as the reciprocal of marginal propensity to save because K = 1/MPS


Can an improper fraction be defined as just a fraction and When you talk about a fraction do you include improper fractions?

When you talk about fractions, you do include improper fractions. However, an improper fraction such as 24/6 is hard, because it should really be called 4. Yes, an improper fraction can be defined as a TYPE of fraction.


If the value of multiplier is 2.49 then find out.what is MPC and MPS?

MPS =0.401 mpc = 0.509